Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 07:52
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How do you weigh in on the Vance-couch conversation?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.